The correct answer is C.

Difficulty with attention is not a symptom of disinhibited social engagement disorder. Answers A, B, and D are key features of disinhibited social engagement disorder, which make them incorrect.

The correct answer is C.

In the statement above you need to recognize two key elements of attributional style:"unstable" and "specific attributions." These are part of the three elements of optimistic (answers B and C) attribution style. If the answer above stated it was "stable" or "global" attributions you should have picked pessimistic (answers A and D). Secondly, in the optimistic attribution style the person makes external (answers A and C) attributions to negative events. A pessimistic attribution style makes internal (answers B and D) attributions. Thus, putting it together, only answer C fits both the requirements of optimistic and external.

The correct answer is B.

As IACUC has the responsibility of reviewing and approving protocols for animal research. The APA Ethics Code is relevant to animal research but does not review research protocols, making answer A incorrect. The AVMA is relevant for animal research (e.g., guidelines for animal euthanasia) but does not review research protocols; hence, answer C is incorrect. The APS does not review research protocols, invalidating answer D.

The correct answer is D.

The Ohio State group identified two classes of behaviors: "Initiates structure" (emphasizes group goals, assignments, deadlines, setting and maintaining standards) and "offers consideration" (provides support, shows respect, emphasizes trust, warmth, and support). "Task-oriented" (answer A) is an adequate description of this cluster, but the Ohio State group used a term that better captures their view that these were active behaviors, i.e., initiates structure. Often these behaviors are associated with an autocratic style (answer B), but behaviors associated with initiating structure (answer D) do not preclude power sharing.

The correct answer is B.

Fear conditioning is a classical conditioning phenomenon, whereas behavioral contrast occurs only with operant conditioning. Negative behavioral contrast can occur when either punishment or extinction follows a previously reinforced behavior, making answers A and D incorrect. Extinction is a behavioral term that exists in both classical and operant conditioning. Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). Avoidant conditioning is an operant conditioning phenomenon that can be used to demonstrate negative behavioral contrast; hence, answer C is incorrect.

The correct answer is C.

Of the responses listed, preoccupation with personal worthlessness is more indicative of a pathological reaction to grief. Sadness, weight loss, and decreased appetite are normal grief reactions in response to significant loss. Extreme feelings of hopelessness and isolation (answer B) could be indicative of major depressive disorder, but would not be considered pathological if the response is within a short period of the loss. Insomnia could be normal or extreme, depending on the length of time exhibited, but as one symptom, extreme preoccupation with personal worthlessness is more indicative of a pathological grief reaction than insomnia.

The correct answer is A.

Burnout refers to physical, emotional, or mental exhaustion typically related to one's occupation. This term is commonly used today in place of prior terms such as nervous breakdown or neurasthenia. Learned helplessness (answer B) involves the repeated process of discovering that there is no escape from an aversive stimulus, and therefore, no escape attempt is made and depressive symptoms increase. Social loafing (answer C) involves the reduction in individual effort that occurs in people working in groups relative to when they work alone. Stress inoculation (answer D) is a four-phase training program for stress management often used in CBT and developed by Miechenbaum.

The correct answer is D.

Answers A, B, and C are all examples of deception because an aspect of the study design is not disclosed or false feedback has been given to the participant. Answer D is not an example of a study using deception, as true informed consent is not obtained when deception is used.

The correct answer is A.

Adverse impact occurs when members of one group are disadvantaged relative to another group based on the same selection-placement-advancement procedure. Disparate treatment refers to the disadvantage a group experiences because its members went through a different process than members of another group or groups. The disadvantage in either case could be intentional or it could be inadvertent, but intention is more often associated with disparate treatment. The procedures used, whether different or the same (and thus whether adverse impact or disparate treatment is the case), are used in recruitment and hiring as well as advancement and promotion.

The correct answer is A.

Overjustification is a paradoxical phenomenon in operant conditioning in which reinforcement actually decreases the level of time and effort an individual chooses to dedicate to a particular behavior. This effect is counterintuitive in operant conditioning because reinforcement is intended to cause an increase in the performance of the behaviors that produce it. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the definition of overjustification.

The correct answer is C.

As a hypomanic episode involves increases in expansive, euphoric, or irritable mood. Answer A is incorrect, as the opposite is true; temporary increases in productive behavior may result. Answer B is incorrect, as there is typically a decreased need for sleep. Answer D is incorrect, as the opposite is true; distractibility, rather than increased concentration, is one of the symptoms of hypomania.

The correct answer is C.

Beck developed the Beck Hopelessness Scale (BHS), which is a 20-point scale used to measure the severity of hopelessness. When combined with high scores on the BDI-II, it is strongly associated with suicidal ideation. To answer this question correctly, you should recognize that hopelessness is a cognitive theory and cognitive model of depression term that is not related to homicidal ideation (answer A), repressed anger (answer B), or over-controlled hostility (answer D). You may have been confused by those terms as they are categories commonly assessed in other inventories.

The correct answer is A.

Good professional practice includes being on time for appointments. Rather than continuing the evaluation and delaying the appointment with the next client, Dr. Nyer should simply schedule a follow-up testing session. Answer B is not advisable due to test security and correct and ethical test administration requirements. Answer C is untrue. Evaluating the client based on a partial test is not the best practice that Dr. Nyer should do with a person who is being evaluated, which makes answer D false.

The correct answer is A.

Transformational leaders distinguish themselves by their ability to inspire followers to strive toward noble pursuits such as morality, justice, and peace. Transformational leaders utilize individualized attention to broaden and elevate the goals of their subordinates; they consider the needs and capabilities of each individual in order to increase performance goals. They also use intellectual stimulation, charisma, and inspiration. Under this kind of leadership, followers are moved to better themselves and behave in ways that contribute to the greater good or a common vision. Charismatic leaders also use vision as means to motivate followers (answer A). Charismatic leadership shares some of the properties of transformational leadership but differs in that charismatic leaders are overly credited with extraordinary abilities (answer D). Charismatic leaders tend to emerge in times of crisis (answer B); transformational leaders can emerge at any time. Charismatic leaders may do little to empower or engage their followers (answer C).

The correct answer is C.

Positive reinforcement involves providing a pleasant stimulus contingent upon the occurrence of a voluntary behavior for the purpose of increasing that behavior. Answers A and B are incorrect, as negative and positive punishment are procedures used to decrease behaviors, not increase them. Answer D is incorrect, as negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding an unpleasant or aversive stimulus contingent upon the performance of a behavior, with the aim of increasing that behavior.

The correct answer is B.

As selective mutism is frequently associated with anxiety in social situations. Answer A is incorrect, as this condition is not linked to childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering). Answers C and D are also incorrect, as selective mutism is not directly linked to language disorder or oppositional defiant disorder.

The correct answer is A.

Automatic thoughts are instantaneous, habitual self-statements that are reflexive, knee-jerk responses to certain situations. Building awareness of the presence and impact of negative automatic thoughts is the central focus of cognitive therapy. Voluntary thoughts (answer B) are thoughts that are under our conscious control and based on an analysis of the situation. Automatic speech (answer C) is speech that erupts involuntarily; it sometimes occurs as a consequence of senility, dementia, or heightened emotional states and in a small percentage of people suffering from Tourette's syndrome. Automatic actions (answer D) are acts performed without requiring attention or conscious awareness.

The correct answer is C.

As it avoids multiple relationships and appropriately provides alternative care for the child. Answer A would violate the prohibition regarding paying members of the media and would create a problematic multiple relationship. Answer B is incorrect; a problematic multiple relationship exists that would impair the psychologist's ability to be objective as the child's therapist. Answer D is not a poor response but does not provide a solution to the problem.

The correct answer is D.

The normative model of leadership (answer D) is Vroom and Yetton's (1978) model, which focuses on various decision-making styles and situational variables. It is assumed that follower commitment and acceptance are a function of acceptance of the leader's decision, and that acceptance is a function of participation in the decision-making. Fiedler's (1978) contingency model holds that leadership is the function of both the person and the situation. According to Fiedler, leaders fall roughly into one of two style categories: Task-oriented and relationship-oriented. Leader effectiveness depends on the interaction between the leader's style and situational variables. Those variables include presence or absence of legitimate position power, state of inter- and intrapersonal relations within the organization, and task complexity (answers A, B, and C).

The correct answer is C.

In output interference, the act of recalling information from memory interferes with the ability to recall other information by displacing it from working memory (or short-term memory). In this example, Tim's working memory was used to keep track of what he was saying while he made his first few points, which used some of his working memory capacity. At the same time, he was also prevented from mentally rehearsing his remaining points while he spoke; thus, the last one may have been forgotten due the limited duration of working memory. Retroactive interference (answer A) occurs when new memories interfere with the ability to recall older memories, whereas proactive interference (answer B) occurs when old memories interfere with the ability to recall new information. Retrieval failure (answer D) is an inability to recollect information that is known to be available in memory; in the present example, Tim does not have knowledge that the information is still available in memory.

The correct answer is A.

The GAF is no longer used in the DSM-5 and it is suggested that the WHO Disability Assessment Schedule (WHODAS) be used to assess disability level. Answers B, C, and D are all false.

The correct answer is B.

In contrast to answer B, schizophrenia is most frequently found in people with the lowest socioeconomic status and is linked to either a downward mobility resulting from the impact of the disease or the triggering of a predisposition due to trauma faced in extreme poverty. Answer A, highlighting the dopamine hypothesis, is correct in that the underactivity of dopaminergic neurons causes negative symptoms or continues to release the mesolimbic dopaminergic neurons to cause positive symptoms. In anatomical studies of individuals with schizophrenia, enlarged ventricles (answer C) have been identified, but this is not specific to schizophrenia. Twin studies have supported the role of a genetic predisposition (answer D) in the development of schizophrenia, which can therefore be transmitted across generations.

The correct answer is D.

A supervisor has the multiple roles of evaluator and teacher, and also bears responsibility for the clinical care of the supervisee's clients. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are advisable in this situation. Given the uncertainty of the risk of suicide, waiting until the following session to determine the patient's intent (answer D) is contraindicated.

The correct answer is C.

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 requires that employers with 15 or more employees (APA) give applicants with disabilities the same consideration for a position that a non-disabled applicant would receive. In addition, when it is deemed feasible, an employer must make reasonable accommodations for employees with mental or physical disabilities who are otherwise able to perform their job duties. Accommodations represent modifications made to the work environment that allow persons with disabilities equal employment opportunities. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (answer B) protects demographic groups such as African-Americans, Hispanics, and women from employment discrimination. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (answer D) protects individuals 40 years or older from discrimination in regards to selection, termination, pay, and training. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC; answer A) is an investigative agency of the federal government that seeks to confirm or not confirm instances of discrimination and to seek resolution of discrimination claims. The EEOC does not have the authority to enforce protection laws.

The correct answer is A.

Apraxia is a neurological disorder that affects a person's ability to perform learned and purposeful movements. These deficits occur despite the fact that there is no physiological impairment in motor function, sensation, attention, coordination, motivation, or comprehension. Answer B is incorrect because although apraxia refers to the inability to perform learned movement, it is not involuntary, invalidating the whole answer. Answer C is incorrect because apraxia is not involuntary and is unrelated to being spontaneous. Memory is not affected in apraxia; therefore, answer D is incorrect.