C2 Elements CP Training & 1C3X1 Career Ladder HQ Orders & Emergency Management INFOSEC, Control Classified, OPSEC & TEMPEST Miscellaneous
100
Personnel, Technology, and Procedures. Personnel—CP Controllers, Commanders, etc; Technology—facilities, equipment, communication systems, etc.; Procedures—written plans, directives, instructions, and checklist.
C2 functions are performed through an arrangement of ____, ____, and ____. Provide one example of each area.
100
12 months (9 months for re-trainees)
Along with completing the mandatory Command and Control Operations Journeyman upgrade course how many months of upgrade training must be completed before an individual is awarded their 5-skill level?
100
Major Command (MAJCOM) Headquarters
Deployment orders are normally sent only to the ____ and not the wings.
100
Proper identification, clearance, signed NDA, and NTK
What is the four part rule for determining the right to access classified material?
100
Compromise
A ____ occurs when an unauthorized individual has had access to classified information as a result of a security violation or infraction.
200
A.) Command; B.) Control; C.) JFC; D.) JAOC and CAOC
(TEAM Questions) A.) ____ is the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. B.) ___ is the process and system by which commanders plan and guide operations. C.) The ___ is normally the CCDR of a unified combatant command, sub-unified combatant command or a joint task force authorized to exercise operational authority over a joint force to accomplish an assigned mission. D.) When COMAFFOR is JFACC, what C2 center will they work out of? Conversely, when the COMAFFOR is CFACC, what C2 center will they work out of?
200
Mission Monitoring, Operational Reporting, Emergency Actions, and Mission Management
What are the AF approved certification areas for CP personnel?
200
Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG)
The ____ working group is responsible for reviewing installation wide programs to ensure the installation is meeting AFIMS and AFEM program objectives.
200
Top and bottom of the front cover, if any; on title page, if any; on the first page if any; on the outside of the back cover, if any.
The overall classification is conspicuously marked or stamped or affixed on the:
200
Standard Form 701 (Activity Security Checklist)
The ____ must be used to record the end of day checks.
300
POTUS/CINC (NMCC [Pri], NAOC [Alt], GOC [Alt], ABNCP [Alt])  SECDEF  CJCS - - - VCJCS  JCS - - - CSA, CMC, CNO, CNGB, CSO, CSAF (AF WATCH)  COCOM  MAJCOM (MAJCOM Command Center)  Wing (Command Post) - - - - WG/CC, WG/CV, WG/CCC  Groups - - - OG, MXG, MSG, MDG  Squadrons

The NMCS is the priority component of the GIG
(Both Members will participate) Instructor will need to set a 4-minute timer. Both participants will need to build the C2 Operational Chain of Command starting with the President all the way down to the wing level. Additionally, participants will need to outline the “C2 Center” for each respective command level. Lastly, controllers will need to write the answer to the following question on the top of the board: The ____ is the priority component of the Global Information Grid (GIG) and is designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities.
300
5 duty days
At minimum controllers who fail examinations or evaluations must receive remedial training and be retested within ____ days.
300
A.) PLANORD; B.) WARNORD; C.) FRAGORD
TEAM Question) A.) ____ is a Planning directive that provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of plan development before the directing authority approves a military course of action. B.) ____ is a preliminary notice of an order or action that is to follow. C.) ____ is an abbreviated form of an OPORD (verbal, written, or digital), which eliminates the need for restating information contained in a basic OPORD.
300
A.) Top Secret; B.) Secret; C.) 180 Days from the creation date; D.) TPC; E.) SF 702
(TEAM Question) A.) The unauthorized disclosure of ____ information could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security. B.) The unauthorized disclosure of ____ information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security. C.) Classified working papers will be marked in the same manner as a finished document at the same classification level when transmitted outside the facility or if retained for more than ____. D.) ____ is the continuous surveillance and control of open or sealed COMSEC material dealing with nuclear weapons. E.) ____ is used to document opening/closing of the container and guard checks.
300
Security Infraction
____ is any knowing, willful or negligent security action contrary to security requirements that does not constitute a security violation.
400
A.) Unified Combatant Command; B.) UCP and every two years; C.) Specified Combatant Command; D.) Combined Command
(TEAM Question) A.) ____ is a military command which has a broad, continuing mission under a single commander and which is composed of components from two or more U.S. services. B.) The ____ is the document that sets forth basic guidance to all CCDRS, and it must be reviewed by the CJCS no less than every ____ years. C.) A ____ is a military command which has a broad, continuing mission and which is normally composed of forces from one U.S. service. D.) ____ consist of forces from more than one allied nation.
400
A.) CFETP; B.) knowledge and task; C.) STS; D.) Skill Level
(TEAM Question) A.) What document contains mandatory knowledge and experience items required in order to hold a skill level within the 1C3X1 AFSC? B.) Skill level training requirements are defined by ____ and ____ requirements. C.) The ___ outlines the specific knowledge and task requirements to achieve each skill level within an AFSC. D.) What does the fourth (4) character of C2 Operations AFSC represent?
400
A.) OPORD; B.) ALERTORD; C.) EXORD; D.) DEPORD
(TEAM Question) A.) ____ is a directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinated execution of an operation. B.) ____ is a planning directive that provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of plan development after the directive authority approves a military course of action. C.) ____ is a directive to implement an approved military course of action. D.) ____ movement of forces from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations.
400
A.) AF Form 143; B.) AF Form 1565; C.) AF Form 310; D.) Top Secret; E.) Cross-cut shredder
(TEAM Question) A.) Top Secret documents are transferred using AF Form ____. B.) What form is used to document entry, receipt and destruction of classified page changes? C.) What form would you use to transfer a secret or confidential document? D.) Which classification level requires two persons to perform destruction? E.) What is the most common method for destroying classified material?
400
EOC
The ____ is activated for large scale incidents such as major accidents, natural disasters and enemy attacks.
500
A.) Wing Staff Agencies; B.) C2 Ops, Reports, Training, C2 Systems; C.) Air Mobility Control Center (AMCC); Crisis Response Group (CRG); Air Operations Center (AOC); D.) NATO; E.) Coalition
(TEAM Question)) A.) Under the wing structure, what group (or group equivalent) does the Command Post fall under? B.) What are the wing CP functional areas of responsibility? C.) Provide at least one (1) example of a specialized C2 element. D.) ____ is an alliance of 29 countries from North America and Europe. E.) A ____ differentiates itself from an alliance by the lack of a binding formal, long-term agreement amongst the partner forces.
500
A.) Certification, Recertification, and Recurring training. B.) 60 Calendar Days; C.) Self-study; D.) Performance Evaluations
(TEAM Question) A.) What are the three categories of Command Post Training? B.) Active duty and full time ANG/AFRC CP controllers must complete initial/recertification training and be certified within ____ from date-entered training. C.) When controllers review materials listed in the monthly training letter they are satisfying ____. D.) What type of proficiency training will be graded as “SAT” or “UNSAT”?
500
A.) HSPD-5; B.) HSPD-8; C.) NRP; D.) Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery. E.) AFIMS
(TEAM Question) A.) HSPD __, management of domestic incidents, identifies steps for improved coordination in response to incidents (also developed NIMS and NRP). B.) HSPD __, national preparedness, describes the way federal departments and agencies will prepare (also mandated the NPG). C.) The ____ is an all-discipline, all-hazard plan for the management of domestic incidents. D.) What are the four (4) phases of the emergency management cycle? E.) ____ is a methodology designed to incorporate the requirements of HSPD-5, the NIMS, the NRP, and OSD guidance while preserving the unique military requirements of the expeditionary Air Force.
500
A.) red and black concept; B.) Identifying Critical Information, Analyze threats, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risk, and applying countermeasures
A.) The ____ concept establishes areas for the placement of equipment processing classified information that are separate and unique from the areas for unclassified processing equipment. B.) What are the five parts of the OPSEC Process?
500
A.) DRF; B.) Initial Response Base (IRB)
A.) The ___ is the Air Force structure that responds to disaster or accidents, establishing C2 and supporting disaster operations. B.) The ____ is the nearest military installation having a disaster response capability, regardless of size, to a major accident involving DoD resources.






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