Cognitive Development Bun in the Oven Through Infancy Growing up to the Teen Years Pass the Heinz please School and Family
100
3. Several school age children are playing handball during recess. Which of the following statements might be made if the children are in Piaget's stage of autonomous morality?

• 1. It's okay to change the rules if we all agree.
• 2. It is wrong to break the rules of the game.
• 3. You're cheating, so I'm not going to play anymore.
• 4. You're cheating, so I'm going to tell on you.
Answer -1
Feedback: CORRECT! This question is based on Piaget's theory of moral development. Response 1 exemplifies autonomous morality while the other three responses are examples of heteronomous morality. According to Piaget, heteronomous morality is seen in children aged 5 -10, and is characterized by a belief that rules are decided upon by authority figures, cannot be changed, and must be followed without question. The transition to autonomous morality occurs at about age ten. In this stage, children realize that rules are flexible, are agreed upon by others, and can be changed if necessary. Note that Response 1 is the only choice that does not see rules as absolute and inflexible.
100
When is the impact of poor nutrition most detrimental?

• 1. During infancy and early childhood.
• 2. During adolescence.
• 3. During old age.
• 4. During the perinatal period.
Answer -4
Feedback: CORRECT! Malnutrition is most detrimental while the fetus is still in utero, at a time when significant physical growth and brain development is taking place. The perinatal period (Response 4) refers to the period from about three months before birth (when the fetus is about one pound) to one month after birth. While poor nutrition certainly is detrimental across the lifespan, it is most detrimental prior to birth.
100
What isAdolescents go through stages in order to form a mature identity. An adolescent who is at the identity status of foreclosure would:

• 1. be committed to a goal after having explored several alternatives.
• 2. be in the process of exploration but not yet committed to a goal.
• 3. have accepted a ready-made identity that an authority figure may have chosen.
• 4. not be committed to clear goals, nor be actively trying to reach them.
Answer - 3
CORRECT! Researchers (e.g., Marcia) have grouped adolescents into four categories, which depict the progress made toward formulating a mature identity: identity achievement, moratorium, foreclosure, and diffusion. The person who is at the identity achievement status has explored several options before developing his or her own set of goals and values (Response 1). The person at the moratorium status (Response 2) is someone who has not made a definite commitment and is in the process of exploration. An adolescent who is at the identity status of foreclosure has committed to a goal without exploring other alternatives. This adolescent has accepted a ready-made identity chosen by an authority figure (e.g., an adolescent is planning on becoming a lawyer because her mother and father are both lawyers and they believe that she should also be a lawyer). The identity diffusion status describes someone who lacks direction, is not committed to goals and values, and is not trying to develop goals (Response 4).
100
According to Kohlberg's theory, a person in the conventional stage of morality would have difficulty understanding that rules are followed in order to:

• 1. avoid punishment.
• 2. fulfill one's duty to society.
• 3. enhance social welfare.
• 4. gain approval.
Answer -3
CORRECT! This response is characteristic of post-conventional morality, and would be difficult to grasp by someone who has not yet reached this stage. This stage is characterized by morality based on personal standards (Morality of Contract, Individual Rights and Democratically Accepted Laws), as well as universal principles of justice, equality and respect for life (Morality of Individual Principles of Conscience). At this level, a person would follow rules in order to enhance the well-being of others. Responses 2 and 4 are both characteristic of conventional morality; fulfilling one's duty is characteristic of the Law and Order Orientation, and gaining approval is characteristic of the Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation. Response 1 is characteristic of the preconventional stage (Punishment-Obedience Orientation), therefore, someone at the conventional stage of morality would likely understand the perspective involved in the previous stage (preconventional).
100
In their study comparing the effects of age-based stereotype threat and self-stereotyping on memory performance, O’Brien and Hummert (2006) found that late middle-aged adults ages 48 through 62 who had:
C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-062 Answer C is correct. L. T. O’Brien and M. L. Hummert found that late middle-aged adults who had an older identity had significantly poorer word recall when they were told their performance would be compared to that of older adults than did those who were told their performance would be compared to that of younger adults or were not given any comparison information. In contrast, adults who had a youthful identity exhibited similar levels of word recall whether they were told their performance would be compared to older adults or younger adults or were not given comparison information. O’Brien and Hummert conclude that their results support the self-stereotyping hypothesis by showing that internalized stereotypes about aging can impair performance on memory tasks [Memory performance of late middle-aged adults: Contrasting self-stereotyping and stereotype threat accounts of assimilation to age stereotypes, Social Cognition, 24(3), 338-358, 2006].
200
On which of the following WAIS-III subtests would you expect an elderly person to evidence the most decline?

• 1. Arithmetic.
• 2. Vocabulary.
• 3. Letter-Number Sequencing.
• 4. Digit Span.
Answer -3
: CORRECT! The classic aging pattern is that crystallized (school-related) abilities are maintained through old age, while fluid (novel problem-solving) skills peak in adolescence and then decline throughout adulthood. This is reflected by the overall trend on the WAIS-III (as with the WAIS-R): Verbal IQ is maintained across most of the adult life span, while Performance IQ peaks early and then declines rapidly and steadily across the life span. This question was asking specifically about the pattern of decline for Arithmetic, Vocabulary, Letter-Number Sequencing and Digit Span, all verbal subtests on the WAIS-III. Vocabulary (Response 2), along with Similarities and Information, loads on the Verbal Comprehension factor. These subtests show the least amount of decline, because they are pure measures of crystallized abilities. Arithmetic, Letter-Number Sequencing, and Digit Span load on the Working Memory Factor. It has been hypothesized that all three Working Memory subtests should show some declines, albeit not as much as any of the performance subtests. The research, however, has indicated that Letter-Number Sequencing declines most rapidly with aging, followed by Digit Span. Contrary to expectations, Arithmetic holds steady with aging.
200
A person who has been diagnosed with deep dyslexia would be most likely to:

• 1. read "tap" instead of "pat."
• 2. read "come" as "comb."
• 3. read "couch" instead of “chair."
• 4. read "strong" as "stroke."
Answer -3
CORRECT! Deep dyslexia typically involves semantic errors; in other words, the person with deep dyslexia mistakenly reads a given word as one with similar meaning. Response 2 describes surface dyslexia. In surface dyslexia, the person cannot recognize words, and instead, sounds them out. Therefore, irregular words, such as "come," are mispronounced. ("Come" is an irregular word because it is pronounced differently than other words which are spelled in a similar fashion, such as "dome" or "home"). When suffering from neglect (Response 4) the person misreads the first or last half of the word.
200
Researchers such as Garmezy and Rutter have studied risk and protective factors in development. In designing interventions to reduce the impact of risk factors on development, one should keep in mind that:

• 1. males and females demonstrate approximately equivalent degrees of resiliency throughout childhood and adolescence.
• 2. there is a positive correlation between severity of risk factors and developmental psychopathology.
• 3. the interaction between risk and protective factors loses significance with increasing age.
• 4. there is a positive correlation between number of risk factors and developmental psychopathology.
Answer -4
: CORRECT! There is a positive correlation between number of risk factors and developmental psychopathology. The overall risk of psychopathology can be determined by adding up the specific risk factors present, and calculating an adversity index. This procedure is based on the theory that most people can cope with a small number of risk factors, however, as risk factors increase, individuals begin to show signs of disturbance. The number of risk factors has been more consistently found to correlate with psychopathology than the severity of risk factors (Response 2). Males and females differ in terms of their resilience to risk factors (Response 1): boys appear more vulnerable to risk factors from the prenatal period to about age 10, while girls grow more vulnerable to risk factors during their teens. Also, girls generally appear to possess a wider range of coping skills than boys. Protective and risk factors continue to remain significant with increasing age (Response 3).
200
In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said it was acceptable for Heinz to steal a drug to try to save his dying wife because “that’s what a good husband does.” This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s __________ level of moral development.
• A. unconventional
• B. preconventional
• C. conventional
• D. postconventional
C. conventional
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-096 Answer C is correct. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. The judgments of people in the conventional level are based on conventional standards of what is right and wrong, and, in the first stage of this level, judgments are based on social expectations (e.g., what a good husband would do).
200
Carstensen, Gottman, and Levenson (1995) found that, compared to dissatisfied middle-aged married couples, dissatisfied older married couples:
• A. show more restraint in expressing negative emotions.
• B. are more likely to blame each other for their problems.
• C. spend less time discussing past pleasant events.
• D. express greater commitment to their relationships.
A. show more restraint in expressing negative emotions.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-069 Answer A is correct. L. L. Carstensen, J. M. Gottman, and R. W. Levenson found that dissatisfied older married couples were less likely than dissatisfied middle-aged couples and satisfied older and middle-aged couples to engage in “negative start up” – i.e., they were less likely to respond to their partners’ expressions of neutral affect with expressions of anger, disgust, or other negative emotions during discussions of their marital problems [Emotional behavior in long-term marriage, Psychology and Aging, 10(1), 140-149, 1995].
300
According to Vygotsky, what is involved with working in the zone of proximal development?

• 1. Providing the child with assistance in completing a task.
• 2. Providing the child with assistance at the level the child seems to need it.
• 3. Providing the child with assistance until she can master a task on her own.
• 4. Providing the child with assistance that is appropriate to the child's age.
Answer -2
CORRECT! Scaffolding, or working in the zone of proximal development, involves providing assistance only when the child truly needs it, through a process that combines shaping and modeling. In scaffolding, the adult tunes in to what skills the young child has and what skills are needed for the next phase of growth. Response 1 is too general. Response 3 focuses on providing assistance until the task is mastered, but misses the idea of scaffolding, or working at the child's level. Response 4 focuses on the child's age, which can be misleading (e.g., some six-year-olds can read fluently, while others don't yet know the alphabet).
300
In terms of attachment, early deprivation has been found to have:

• 1. mostly irreversible consequences, and to have progressive impact on the child's interpersonal relationships.
• 2. mostly irreversible consequences, however, the effects may be somewhat mitigated depending on the amount of nurturance received later.
• 3. reversible consequences, depending on the child's cognitive ability.
• 4. reversible consequences, depending on the nature of the child's subsequent relationships.
Answer -5

Feedback: CORRECT! Even though Bowlby suggested that disruption of the attachment bond has irreversible effects, there is evidence that the impact of early deprivation on the attachment bond can actually be reversible. The quality of the care that the child later receives is the most significant factor in whether the child will be able to recover from early deprivation.
300
Which of the following best defines the model of antisocial behavior developed by G. R. Patterson?

• 1. Antisocial behavior results from a predictable developmental sequence of experiences.
• 2. Antisocial behavior is modeled by the parent(s) through excessive discipline.
• 3. Antisocial behavior is genetically determined.
• 4. Children learn antisocial behavior primarily through affiliation with deviant peer groups.
Answer -1
CORRECT! G. R. Patterson has proposed that delinquency results from a reliable developmental sequence of experiences. First, the pattern begins with poor parenting, for example, threats, criticism, yelling, noncontingent punishment, noncontingent reinforcement, and reinforcement of the child's coercive behaviors within the family. This inept parenting can be due to the personality of the parent(s), the child's temperament, as well as a number of disruptors (e.g., disadvantaged SES, or stressors such as unemployment, marital discord or divorce). Over time, the intensity of coercive behaviors within the family escalates (e.g., hitting, physical attacks), and the child learns to control other family members through coercive means. Second, the child with conduct problems experiences academic failure and peer rejection. Third, as a result of feeling rejected, the child or adolescent becomes depressed and is more likely to get involved in a deviant peer group. According to Patterson, these three steps contribute to the development of chronic delinquent tendencies and behaviors. Response 2 is incorrect in that even though excessive parental discipline may contribute to antisocial behavior, it is not just through modeling, as this response suggests. Based on Patterson's model, aggression is learned, and is not innate (Response 3). Affiliation with deviant peer groups contributes to the development of aggression, however, it is one of the factors responsible, and not the only one (Response 4).
300
Adults who are classified as __________ on the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) deny or devalue the importance of their early attachment relationships or provide contradictory information about them.
• A. autonomous
• B. dismissing
• C. preoccupied
• D. unresolved
B. dismissing
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-050 Answer B is correct. The AAI categorizes adults as either autonomous, dismissing, preoccupied, or unresolved based on the way they describe their childhood attachment experiences. Adults who are categorized as dismissing are unable to recall attachment related experiences, deny the importance of those experiences, or present contradictory information about them – e.g., say their attachment experiences were very positive but present examples of actual events that were very negative.
300
The highest rates of aggression in boys have been found:

• 1. in homes in which one or both parents is deceased.
• 2. in families with divorced parents.
• 3. in homes in which the father is present.
• 4. in homes in which the father is absent.
Answer -3
: CORRECT! Boys who come from homes in which the father is present have the highest rates of aggressive behavior. This may possibly be related to boys' direct interactions with their fathers, which may involve aggression, or to modeling of aggressive behavior of their fathers.
400
Piaget proposed that, during substage 3 (secondary circular reactions) of the sensorimotor stage, an infant:
• A. repeats enjoyable motor or sensory responses that involve his/her own body.
• B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object.
• C. deliberately changes a behavior to determine the consequences of doing so.
• D. coordinates two or more responses to solve a problem.
B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-029 Answer B is correct. As described by Piaget, the substages of the sensorimotor stage involve different types of circular reactions, which are actions that are performed to repeat an event that first occurred by chance. Substage 3 occurs between four and eight months of age and is characterized by secondary circular reactions, which are goal-directed actions that elicit a response from a person or object. For example, an infant might kick the mobile hanging over his crib to make it move.
400
A 12-month-old infant exposed to the Strange Situation Procedure responds to the mother's return with initial enthusiasm, immediately followed by detachment. This child is most likely:

• 1. anxious-avoidant.
• 2. anxious-ambivalent.
• 3. insecurely attached.
• 4. slow-to-warm-up.
Answer 2
: CORRECT! This is characteristic of an anxious-ambivalent infant. This type of infant becomes upset when the mother leaves the room. When she returns, the infant seeks close contact while at the same time angrily squirming to get away. These caregivers have been characterized as inconsistent, and insensitive. Anxious-avoidant infants (Response 1) do not seek closeness and contact with the mother, treat the mother like a stranger, rarely cry when she leaves the room, and ignore her on her return. Insecure attachment includes both the anxious-avoidant and the anxious-ambivalent types and is therefore less specific than Response 2. Slow-to-warm-up (Response 4) describes a type of infant temperament not a type of attachment. Slow-to-warm-up infants are mild in responding, somewhat shy and withdrawn, and need time to adjust to new experiences or people.
400
What can be said about the effect of early stimulation on the development of motor skills in infants and preschoolers?

• 1. Regardless of early stimulation, these skills cannot be achieved earlier.
• 2. Infants who experience early stimulation can achieve motor skills earlier than those who do not, however, there are no long-term differences between these groups.
• 3. Infants who experience early stimulation achieve motor skills earlier than those who do not, and these differences are generally maintained.
• 4. Infants who do not experience early stimulation experience lags in motor development.
Answer 2
: CORRECT! Studies have shown that early motor skills develop as a result of the interaction between maturation and environmental stimulation. While all babies do follow a similar sequence of development, early stimulation can affect the rate at which motor skills are achieved. There do not appear to be long-term differences between those who have had early stimulation and those who have not. Severe deprivation of environmental stimulation tends to have negative effects on motor development that could have long-term consequences.
400
THE DAILY DOUBLE!!!!!

The best friend of your seven-year-old daughter just died in a car accident. What does the research suggest would be the best way to handle the situation?

• 1. It would be better not to tell your child that her friend died, because it could unnecessarily fuel fears about her own death and future death of family members.
• 2. It would not be of benefit to tell your child that her friend died, because children this age cannot cognitively comprehend the meaning of death.
• 3. Whether or not to tell your child that her friend died should depend on your child's level of emotional maturity.
• 4. Tell your child that her friend died, because an open, honest discussion will contribute to her emotional well-being.
Answer 4
Feedback: CORRECT! The research suggests that most children arrive at an adult-like understanding of death by age seven. This understanding includes the ideas that death is permanent (dead things cannot be brought back to life), universal (all living things eventually die), and nonfunctional (all functions including thought, movement, etc., cease at death). Although parents often worry that discussing death with children will fuel their fears, this is not the case. Instead, children who have a good grasp of the facts of death have an easier time accepting it. Open, honest discussions contribute both to cognitive appreciation of the concept of death, and to the child's well-being. This is also the case when the young child is faced with his or her own impending death (e.g., from a life threatening illness).
400
The studies suggest that children exhibit the greatest number of internalizing and externalizing behaviors and other problems when their divorced parents remarry when the children are:
• A. between five and eight years old.
• B. between nine and 12 years old.
• C. in early adolescence.
• D. in late adolescence.
C. in early adolescence.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-056 Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7, 39-56, 1993.
500
According to Piaget, constructivism refers to:

• 1. the child's ability to recognize that an object can retain its basic characteristics even though it might change form.
• 2. the child's ability to gain new knowledge by interacting with others.
• 3. the child's ability to gain new knowledge by interacting with objects and events in the environment.
• 4. the child's ability to develop abstract thought and reflect about oneself.
Answer 3
: CORRECT! According to constructivism, a person develops new knowledge based on a foundation of previous learning, and by interacting with objects and events in the environment. When applied to schooling, constructivists place emphasis on the student, rather than the teacher. The teacher is a facilitator who assists students to construct their own conceptualizations and solutions to problems. Response 1 describes the ability to conserve. Response 2 is the opposite of constructivism, since it states that knowledge is transmitted by others, and not developed by the self. Response 4 describes the formal operational stage of Piaget's cognitive development, as well as metacognition.
500
Of the following statements, which best describes current contemporary beliefs about development?

• 1. Genes and environment each contribute about equally to development.
• 2. Genes determine the course and pace of development.
• 3. Genes and environment together shape development.
• 4. In most areas of development, genes will be expressed regardless of environmental exposure.
Answer -3
CORRECT! This statement relates to the "nature versus nurture" debate and is consistent with the transactional model, according to which genetic and environmental variables transact continually over time. It is not accurate to state that genes and the environment each contribute about 50% to development (Response 1). Responses 2 and 4 do not address the role of the environment in development, and are untrue.
500
WhaYou are treating a six-year-old girl in individual therapy following the divorce of her parents. Occasionally, you have family sessions with her father, who is the custodial parent. You notice that after spending a week with her mother, the girl seems high-strung and clings to her father. Which of the following statements best describes your understanding of this situation?

• 1. The girl's presentation is consistent with abuse.
• 2. The girl's presentation is consistent with a separation-anxiety disorder.
• 3. The girl's presentation is probably a normal response.
• 4. The girl's presentation indicates that she is having difficulty with the divorce and custody arrangements, and it would therefore be advisable to limit visits with her mother to briefer periods of time.
t is
Answer -3
CORRECT! Out of the options listed, this is the best response. It can be typical of some children of divorced parents to exhibit behavioral disturbances after separation from the custodial parent. While it may be possible that this child is being abused, no information is provided in the question to suggest that abuse is actually occurring. It would therefore be too premature to suspect abuse by either parent at this point without knowing more about the family dynamics (Response 1). The essential feature of separation anxiety disorder is excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from primary attachment figures, lasting for a period of at least four weeks. This is not the case here (Response 2). Finally, the girl seems to be having a normal reaction to a difficult situation. It would be premature to change the visitation schedule at this point (Response 4).
500
Kohlberg’s (1966) model of gender identity development distinguishes between three stages that parallel cognitive development. The final stage in Kohlberg’s model is:
• A. gender constancy.
• B. gender typicality.
• C. gender identity.
• D. gender stability.
A. gender constancy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-D1-LIF-040 Answer A is correct. Kohlberg’s three stages, in order, are gender identity (the child labels him/herself as a boy or girl), gender stability (the child recognizes that gender is stable over time), and gender constancy (the child recognizes that gender is stable across situations).
500
Johnson’s Typology (2006) research led him to conclude that there are four types of IPV . Which one is not one of them


1. Intimate terrorism
2. Violent resistance
3.Situational couple violence
4. Acute Battering Incident
Answer = 4
1. Intimate terrorism is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by the male partner who uses violence to control his female partner. For perpetrators of intimate terrorism, physical violence is typically accompanied by other methods of control such as making threats, exerting economic control, inflicting sexual and emotional abuse, and isolating the victim. Intimate terrorism is the type of IPV that most often takes the form of Walker’s cycle of violence.

2. Violent resistance is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by the female partner as a response to the abuser’s physical attacks. The female partner’s motivation is not to control her partner but to retaliate or defend herself, or in extreme cases, to escape the abuse by killing the abuser.

3. Mutual violent control is perpetrated by both parents for the purpose of gaining control over their relationship. Johnson’s research found this to be the least common type of IPV.

4. Situational couple violence is perpetrated by male and female partners, can be either one sided or mutual, rating from mild to severe. It is situationally provoked (e.g. by an argument that escalates to verbal and/or physical aggression). It may involve the desire to control the relationship. Johnson found this to be the most common IPV.
4.(correct) is part of the Stages of Walkers cycle of violence






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